Why was empiricism common in Great Britain and rationalism in the continent?

[noi_avorrit]

cant bother explaining

it's the same in law; the precedent-related doctrines exist (and define common law legal systems) n commonwealth because kings were issuing verdicts via his scholars in the uk, while continental europe preferred abstract, generalized sets of rules (laws) as their primary source of law

Very good point indeed. The law systems of the UK and the continent differ significantly, and if I remember correctly lots of continental european countries use napoleonic-based law as an other difference with the UK (although this is more related to the napoleonic wars)