why is "no true Scotsman" even a fallacy?
#1
when person A says no Scotsman puts sugar on their porridge they clearly don't mean that it's physically impossible for a Scottish person to do that - it's just their way of revealingĀ their personal intepretation of the word "Scotsman" and what it connnotes

legit a fake fallacy along with whataboutism
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#2
CheersšŸ‘
Now back to your cave
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#3
for the same reason appeal to nature is a fallacy

because it can be and someone decieded it to beĀ  one
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#4
it's not a fallacy because what constitutes a "true scotsman" is completely arbitrary/practically a joke
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#5
not sure if serious
(18-09-2025, 06:49 PM)MVP Wrote: i already said, rӏ is built different

Quote:[Image: Screenshot-2026-06-20-at-23-46-52-Lookis...-Lists.png]
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#6
Because people use the fallacy to double-down on promoting absolute nonsense. Some people's brains don't work very well, which leads them toĀ think that 'no true Scotsman' isĀ a valid/objective argument (rather than being a fallacy – which it blatantly is), which obviously isn't going to end well in a formal debate.
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#7
wittgenstein is truly one of the highest iq philosophers
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#8
all "fallacies" are this

appeal to authority: don't care andĀ you're gonna lose this buddy

strawman: this is what i think of you

ad hominem: obviously wrong andĀ i don't like you
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